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Consider This

A Scriptural Challenge to all Christians

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Yahushua and Scripture Languages
Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic, Kasdiy

Many scholars of languages and scripture have stated authoritatively that Yahushua, whom they invariably and incorrectly call Jesus or Yeshua, and all other Yisra'eliym living at the time He walked the earth, did not speak the Ibriy (Hebrew) language but instead spoke Koine Greek or Kasdiy (another Semitic language similar to the Ibriy). They further claim that the Ibriy language by the time of Yahushua was a "dead" language that has only recently been restored to its once proud place among languages of the world.

There is much evidence to say that these hypotheses are not only untenable but also deny the truth that is staring these people straight in the face from their own documents.

If you accept that the Dead Sea Scrolls were the work of ascetics who lived in Qumran, which most of these scholars do accept, then those scrolls are proof beyond measure that Ibriy was spoken immediately prior to and far into the first century CE, for even their secular record keeping documents are written in Ibriy.

Extra-scriptural Evidence
For those of you who don't know this, Flavius Josephus was an Ibriy historian of the first century. The books he wrote are accepted, and rightly so, as authoritative documents of extreme accuracy concerning the times in which he lived. He also wrote much about other periods that are excellent dissertations of some history of the Yahudiym.

In one of his books, Antiquities of the Jews, he gives us a point-blank statement regarding the speech his people used in the first century and why they used it.

Not only does he say that first century Yisra'eliym could not even speak or understand Greek, but that they spoke "their own language" and that it was Ibriy.

Scriptural Evidence

Something of note is that some people of "them that stood there" did NOT understand what He had said. If they used Kasdiy in their everyday life, why not? Kasdiy IS what He spoke in that passage and it is a direct fulfillment of Psalms 22:1 where Dawiyd (David) used the Ibriy phrase, "Eli, Eli. Lamach Tsabataniy," which is very similar to the Kasdiy.

If Kasdiy and Greek were the primary tongues of this period and Ibriy was a dead language, what was Pilatos doing using it in the superscription? That would make no sense at all for nobody would have known what it said.

All of the above passages show the writer explaining to the reader the difference in two common languages of the time. Remember that these books were written primarily for the edification of the assembly, just as were Sha'uwl's (Paul) letters, and most of those people who were the intended recipients spoke Greek.

The commander was surprised that Sha'uwl spoke Greek. If Greek was the primary tongue spoken by the Ibriy of that time, that would seem a little incongruous.

Sha'uwl was speaking to the native people in their native tongue and they understood every word. Dead language? I think not!

If Ibriy was a dead language, then why was our Savior using it to converse with His chosen apostle to the Gentiles?

I also believe that Ibriy what Yahuwah is speaking of when He says that He will return a "pure lip" to the people so they can call on Him in Spirit and in Truth.

There is much more evidence both in scripture and historical literature to show that Ibriy never died but has always been vital and powerful, but this small amount of proofs should be enough to make the point that the so-called scholars are incorrect again. Of course, you must realize that since they have positions to maintain they will defend their statements with every gun they can bring to bear. The scripture is a strong shield against all of their shots though. Believe scripture and check it out for yourself.

C.F. Castleberry